22nd SET 2020 WBSET PAPER 1

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1. The main objective of teaching is

(A) scoring high marks in the examination.

(B) completing the syllabus thoroughly.

(D) creating lifelong learners.

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2. NMEICT stands for

(A) National Mission on E-learning through ICT

(B) National Mission on Education through ICT

(D) National Mission on E-Commerce through ICT

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3. Introducing internal assessment as part of the evaluation process is good because it helps the teachers to

(A) encourage the students to behave well in the class.

(B) give weightage to the behaviour of students in the classroom.

(D) improve the aggregate score of the students.

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4. A deductive theory is one that

(A) allows theory to emerge out of the data.

(B) involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis.

(D) uses qualitative methods whenever possible.

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5. Which branch of philosophy deals with knowledge, its structure, method and validity?

(A) Logic

(B) Aesthetics

(D) Metaphysics

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6. (i) The method is psychological and imparts knowledge in a natural manner without any assumption or presumption.
(ii) It is a scientific method which is based on visible elements or facts.
(iii) This is the best method as it teaches the student to think for himself.
(iv) As the result of acquiring knowledge through this method, the feeling of self-confidence and self-dependence is developed in the student.
All the above are related to which method of teaching-learning?

(A) Deductive Method

(B) Inductive Method

(D) Mixed Method

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7. A null hypothesis is

(A) hypothesis of no difference.

(B) hypothesis that assigns value of zero to the variable.

(D) hypothesis which can neither be proved nor disproved.

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8. The study of role of time in communication is known as

(A) Chronemics

(B) Semiotics

(D) Kinesics

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9. The term ‘op cit’ stands for

(A) as cited above

(B) as cited opposite

(D) as cited in the bibliography

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10. If the male population above poverty line for State ‘C’ is 1.9 million, then the total population of State ‘C’ is

(A) 4.55 million

(B) 4.85 million

(D) 6.25 million

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11. What will be the number of females above poverty line in the State ‘D’ if it is known that the population of State ‘D’ is 7 million?

(A) 3.50 million

(B) 2.43 million

(D) 4.15 million

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12. What will be the male population above poverty line for the State ‘A’ if the female population below poverty line for State ‘A’ is 2.1 million?

(A) 2.2 million

(B) 3.3 million

(D) 2.7 million

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13. If the population of males below poverty line for State ‘B’ is 2.4 million and the same for State ‘E’ is 6 million, then the total populations of States ‘B’ and ‘E’ are in the ratio of

(A) 1:3

(B) 1:3.5

(D) 1:2

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14. Which number indicates the boys who are athletic and disciplined?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 6

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15. Which one of the following indicates athletic boys and girls?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 2

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16. What is represented by number 1?

(A) Athletic boys

(B) Athletic disciplined boys

(D) Disciplined boys

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17. Which of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal (MDG)?

(A) Improvement in maternal health

(B) Achieve universal access to safe drinking water, sanitation and hygiene

(D) Achieve universal primary education

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18. The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of

(A) Hydrogen

(B) Chlorine

(D) Oxygen

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19. Which of the following is the basic unit of study of ecology?

(A) Population

(B) Environment

(D) Ecosystem

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20. Which of the following is not part of geological disaster?

(A) Volcanoes

(B) Earthquakes

(D) Sea Surge

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21. The popular operating system used in mobile smart phones

(A) UNIX

(B) LINUX

(D) ANDROID

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22. The system widely used for data collection and acquisition is known as

(A) Scalable Control and Data Acquisition

(B) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

(D) Adaptive Data Acquisition

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23. Team A and B play in a Basket Ball tournament. A match can have three outcomes; (i) A win (ii) B win (iii) Tie. The team has to win two games to be declared as winner. The first team winning two games in a row is declared as a winner and tournament ends. In how many ways the tournament can proceed where one team can be declared as winner?

(A) 8

(B) 9

(D) 11

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24. The number of 8 bit strings that can be formed beginning with either “111…” or “101…” is

(A) 32

(B) 64

(D) 256

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25. In an Internet world, computers connected to Internet are identified by

(A) e-mail address

(B) MAC address

(D) Memory address

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26. In IT Act, 2000, which section deals with the punishment for cyber terrorism?

(A) 66 (A)

(B) 66 (B)

(D) 66 (G)

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27. Which layer of the atmosphere is also called Ozonosphere?

(A) Troposphere

(B) Mesosphere

(D) Exosphere

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28. Which of the following is having the primary objective to disseminate countrywide higher educational programmes through TV along with appropriate use of ICT?

(A) INFLIBNET

(B) CEC

(D) NAAC

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29. Assertion (A): The Governor of a state exercises the power of issuing ordinance on the advice of the Cabinet.
Reason (R): The exercise of ordinance making power of Governor is discretionary.
Which of the following code is correct on the basis of A and R?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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30. In the 6th century BCE, which of the following places flourished as a centre of higher education?

(A) Nalanda

(B) Vikramshila

(D) Ujjayini

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31. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution originally referred to the Right to Property as Fundamental Right?

(A) Article 19

(B) Article 20

(D) Article 22

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32. Concerning the primary focus of the Five Year Plans in India which of the following is not correct?

(A) First FYP—Development of primary sector

(B) Second FYP — Heavy Industry

(D) Fourth FYP — Science and Technology

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33. Which of the following is not a function of the AICTE?

(A) Promotion of quality in technical education

(B) Focusing on non-formal education

(D) Allocation of grants for planned and coordinated development of technical education

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34. With which of the following government schemes are the phrases har khet ko paani and per drop more crop associated?

(A) Rainfed Area Development Programme (RADP)

(B) National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)

(D) Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana(PKVY)

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35. The Nobel Foundation has awarded two Nobel Prizes in Literature this year for 2018 & 2019, as last year’s prize was cancelled. Why was the Nobel Prize in Literature cancelled in 2018?

(A) Because of internal problems of the Swedish Academy.

(B) Because no shortlisted author was found suitable.

(D) Because the term of the expert committee had expired and the new committee had not been constituted.

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36. The ratio between the rates of walking of A and B is 3:4. If the time taken by B to cover a distance is 24 minutes, the time taken by A to cover that much distance is

(A) 18 mins

(B) 32 mins

(D) 132 mins

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37. A tin contains 50 paise, 25 paise and 10 paise coins in the ratio 5:9:4, amounting to Rs. 206. Find the number of coins of each type respectively.

(A) 100, 150, 200

(B) 200, 360, 160

(D) 360, 160, 200

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38. If + means —, — means x, x means + and + means +, then which of the following equations is not correct?

(A) 10×5-2+4+6=2

(B) 12×44+5+9-2=14

(D) 14+7-5+10×2=45

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39. What is a research design?

(A) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.

(B) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.

(D) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

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40. Which of the following is not an example of a “unit of analysis”?

(A) Validity

(B) Significant actors

(D) Subjects and themes

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41. A is the mother of P and Q. C is the father-in-law of A, father of B and D, and grandfather of Q. C has only one daughter. D is the aunt of P. How is B related to A?

(A) Brother

(B) Son

(D) Cannot be determined

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42. In a certain code ‘367’ means ‘Blue Colour Car’; ‘694’ means ‘Green Colour Fan’ and ‘356’ means ‘White Colour Car’. What digit in that code means ‘Green’?

(A) 4

(B) either 4 or 9

(D) Cannot be determined

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43. How many 4s are there in the following number sequence which are immediately preceded by 9 but not immediately followed by an even number?
7359456238426942789438289413457

(A) One

(B) Two

(D) More than three

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44. Choose the missing word in place of (?) on the basis of relationship.
West : North-East : : South : ?

(A) North-West

(B) South-East

(D) East

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45. I started walking towards East and after walking 20 meters, turned to my left and walked 15 meters. Then, I turned to my left and walked 20 meters. Again, I turned to my left and walked 15 meters. Now I am walking in which direction with respect to the starting point?

(A) South

(B) North

(D) West

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46. The Dalit movement in India is yet to be fully formed, with a sizeable consensus. It lives in various forms, sizes and shapes. It has not yet formulated a cogent programme to take in politically conservative Dalits by bringing them into the wider Indian democratic experience. Dalit scholars and politicians alike can be seen struggling to formulate a workable theory of Ambedkarism or Dalitism that would be a manifesto for common liberation.

By exclusively relying on constitutionalism as a means of emancipation, this class of intellectuals argues for a Utopian dream. The methods of Dalit emancipation, however, remain unknown. The sooner India’s oppressed realise this, the better. One cannot depend on the limited conceptions of constitutionalism for deliverance. Owing to the limited control of this institution, the Constitution has become synonymous to a grievance cell offering no immediate solutions.

The linguistic accessibility of the Constitution and its reach to the oppressed is extremely limited. Few peasants would consider the Constitution as a written word that would guarantee them protection from the landlord’s real and financial whipcord. Similarly, few beggars who are living on the mercy of donors’ charity would think that this dossier guarantees them equality and access to freedom. The idea of the Constitution is romantic. No one really knows its limitations but lauds its profundity without testing it out. Many Dalits are repeating the state’s narrative of constitutionalism as being the ultimate virtue – a god-sent panacea. It does nothing more than applying a lotion to massage one’s shattered ego. But when it comes to exercising the enshrined codes in the Constitution, Dalits seem to be harming their self-worth. This is because not everybody feels this document is close to their hearts as much as Dalits. Not everyone has similar expectations from the Constitution. Thus, it creates genuine gaps while considering constitutional morality as a common virtue. Hence, in such a situation of one-sided applicability, mutual cohabitation is a long shot. One has to pierce through the devious agenda of casteist rogues by injecting a radical antidote to set a tone of mutuality and respectability. Unless this is settled, no further conversation can be foreseen that will yield real results.
[Extracted from Suraj Yengde, Caste Matters]

The word “panacea” as used in the passage means:

(A) boon

(B) opportunity

(D) reassurance

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47. The author is of the view that

(A) there is no solution in law for the problems of Dalits.

(B) legal solutions are not always the most effective.

(D) there cannot be any permanent solution to the problem of Dalit Oppression.

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48. What does the author mean by claiming that “the idea of the Constitution is romantic”?

(A) The Constitution is unrealistic.

(B) The Constitution has many limitations.

(D) The belief in the Constitution is unfounded.

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49. Which of the following statements is not implied in the passage?

(A) Caste oppression will continue so long as people do not obey the Constitution.

(B) The Constitution is not equally accessible to all.

(D) The problem of caste calls for social and not merely legal solutions.

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50. Which of the following analogies does the author recurrently use with reference to casteism?

(A) Casteism is like a sin.

(B) Casteism is like immoral conduct.

(D) Casteism is like a nightmare.

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